Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống 8 Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 Global Success (Có ma trận, File nghe)

Bộ đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống gồm 8 đề thi, có đáp án, hướng dẫn chấm và bảng ma trận kèm theo, giúp thầy cô xây dựng đề thi giữa kì 2 cho học sinh của mình theo chương trình mới.

Bộ đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success có 1 đề thi có đủ ma trận, file nghe và đáp án. Còn 1 đề có ma trận và đáp án, 6 đề còn lại có đáp án, giúp các em luyện giải đề, nắm vững cấu trúc đề thi để đạt kết quả cao trong kỳ thi giữa kì 2 năm 2023 – 2024 sắp tới. Ngoài ra, có thể tham khảo thêm đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Ngữ văn, Tin học, Khoa học tự nhiên. Vậy mời thầy cô và các em cùng theo dõi bài viết dưới đây của Thcslytutrongst.edu.vn:

1. Đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức có File nghe

1.1. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success

TRƯỜNG THCS ……… TỔ: NĂNG KHIẾU

KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II- NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể giao đề)

SECTION A: LISTENING (2.5 points)

Part I.Listen to the passage then tick (√) T(True)orF (False) for each sentence. (1,25 pts) You will listen TWICE.

the statements	True	False
1. Hai plays chess every Saturday.
2.‘Angry Birds’ is Bill’s favourite game
3. Alice doesn’t like doing sports very much
4. Trung is very good at playing football.
5. Bill’s dream is to create a new game.

Part II. Listen and fill in each gap with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. You will listen TWICE.(1.25pts).

6. The city of Stockholm covers ____________ islands.
7. It has ____________ years of history.
8. There are about ____________ people living in the Old Town today.
9. Nobel prize winners receive their awards on ____________.
10. The award consists of a Nobel diploma, a medal, and ____________ Swedish crowns.

SECTION B: LANGUAGE FOCUS (2.5 pts)

Part I/ Choose the word (A, B, C, or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (0,5 pts)

11. A. cold B. postcard C. town D. pagoda

12. A. theater B. weather C. earthD. both

Part II. Match the words/ phrases with the correct definitions . There is one extra definition(1.25 pts).

Words/ phrases	Definitions
13. floating market	A a film/ show which makes people laugh
14. comedy	B. special glasses to protect the eyes from wind, water, chemicals, etc.
15. goggles	C. a programme which teaches Maths, English., etc.
16. Fika	D. a person who wins the first place in a competition
17. educational programme	E. a coffee break
F. a market where goods are sold from boats on the river.

Part III. Choose the best word and phrase (A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentences below. (0.75 pts)

18. Ben wrote his parents a postcard _____________ he was on holiday.

A. and B. because C. so D. while

19. Nam: How _____________ do you think you can live without TV? Hoa: Just one day.

A. long B. much C. often D. many

20. Oh no, these are my pencils. ________________ are over there!

A. Your B. Yours C. you D. yourselves

SECTION C: READING (2.5 pts).

Part 1. Read the text below and tick (√) the correct landmarks. (1.25 pts)

City Landmarks

The Eiffel Tower in Paris, France

This famous tower was built in the 19^th century. The tower is made of metal. It has three floors. Visitors can climb 704 steps to its top to view the whole Paris. They can also use the lifts to the second floor and then climb!

The Tokyo Skytree in Tokyo, Japan

The Tokyo Skytree is a symbol of Japan’s excellence in television broadcasting. It was built in 2012 and is the tallest tower in the world. It has a large shopping center and an aquarium at its base. Visitors can go to the observation decks to see the whole Tokyo.

The One Pillar Pagoda (Chùa Một Cột) in Ha Noi, Viet Nam

The One Pillar Pagoda looks like a lotus flower growing from the water. It was built in the 11^th century. It is small in size but rich in culture. Visitors come to the Pagoda to pray for health and luck.

Which landmark…	Eiffel Tower	Tokyo Skytree	One Pillar Pagoda
21. is used in broadcasting industry?
22. has lifts to the second floor?
23. has the shape of a flower?
24 is the tallest?
25. is older than the other two landmarks?

Part 2. Read the passage and choose the correct answer for each question A, B, C or D (1.25 pts)

Rebecca Stevens was the first woman to climb Mount Everest. Before she went up the highest mountain in the world, she was a journalist and lived in south London.

In 1993, Rebecca left her job and her family and travelled to Asia with some other climbers. She found that life on Everest is very difficult. “You must carry everything on your back,” she explained, “so you can only take things that you will need. You can’t wash on the mountain, and in the end I didn’t even take a toothbrush. I am usually a clean person but there is no water, only snow. Water is very heavy so you only take enough to drink!”

Rebecca became famous when she reached the top of Mount Everest on May 17, 1993. After that, she wrote a book about the trip, and people often asked her to talk about it. She got a new job too, on a science programme on television.

26. Where was Rebecca Stevens from?

A. England
B. Asia
C. Everest
D. The South

27. Before she climbed Everest, Rebecca Stevens was a ______________.

A. climber
B. journalist
C. traveller
D. scientist

28. Why did Rebecca Stevens become famous?

A. She left her job and her family and travelled to Asia.
B. She found that life on Everest is very difficult.
C. She got a new job on television.
D. She was the first woman to climb Mount Everest.

29. Life on Everest is very difficult because __________________.

A. it is very high
B. you can’t take things with you
C. there is no water there
D. there are no toothbrushes

30. After 1993, Rebecca had a ________________.

A. new book
B. new job
C. programme
D. television

SECTION D: WRITING (2.5 points).

Part 1. Find out the mistake in each of the following sentences. (0.5 pts)

31. A fewdays ago my father buys a new soccer ball for me.
      A                                         B                    C                D

32. You look strange today becauseher hair is shorter than usual.
               A                               B        C              D

Part II. Rewrite the sentences, using the words given. (1.0 pt)

33. Phong can’t watch Eight Feet Below. He has a lot of homework tonight. (SO)

=> _____________________________________________________________

34. This is my racket. (MINE)

=> _____________________________________________________________

35. Ride your bike carefully, Tom. (CYCLE)

=> Don’t ________________________________________________________

36. The first Olymic Games took place in Greece in 776 BC (WHEN)

=> _____________________________________________________________?

Part III. Complete the sentences using the clues given. (1.0 pt)

37. What/ colourful/ nice picture!

=> ________________________________________________________________

38. Jeremy /become/ member/ the city gold club/ two year ago.

=> __________________________________________________________________

1.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

SECTION A: LISTENING (2.5 điểm)
Part I. (1.25 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0.25 điểm
1: F	2: T	3: T	4: F	5: T
Part II. (1.25 điểm) Mỗi câu điền đúng được 0.25 điểm
6. 14/ fourteen	7. 700/ seven hundred		8. 3000/ three thousand
9. 10th December 10. 10 million/ ten million
SECTION B: LANGUAGE FOCUS (2.5 điểm)
Part I/ (0.5 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0.25 điểm
11. C	12. B
Part II/ (1.25 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0.25 điểm
13. F	14. A	15. B	16. E	17. C
Part III/ (0.75 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0.25 điểm
18. D	19. A	20. B
SECTION C: READING (2.5 điểm).
Part I/ (1.25 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0.25 điểm.
21. Tokyo Skytree	22. Eiffel Tower	23.One pillar pagoda	24.Tokyo Skytree
25. One pillar pagoda
Part II/ (1.25 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0.25 điểm.
26. A	27. B	28. D	29. C	30. B
SECTION D: WRITING (2.5 điểm).
Part I/ (0.5 điểm) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0.25 điểm.
31. B	32. C
Part II/ (1.0 điểm) Mỗi câu viết đúng được 0.25 điểm
33. Phong has a lot of homework tonight, so he can’t watch Eight Feet Below.
34. This racket is mine
35. Don’t cycle carelessly, Tom!
36. When did the first Olymic Games take place in Greece?
Part III/ (1.0 điểm) Mỗi câu viết đúng được 0.5 điểm
37. What a colourful and nice picture!
38: Jeremy became a member of the city gold club two year ago.

AUDIO SCRIPT

PART I

Hello. My name’s Hai. I love sports. I play volleyball at school and I often go cycling with my dad at the weekend. But my favourite sport is judo. I practise at the judo club three times a week.

My name’s Alice. I’m twelve years old. I don’t like doing sport very much, but I like watching ice skating on TV. My favourite hobby is playing chess. My friend and I play chess every Saturday.

Hi. I’m Bill. I’m in grade six at Rosemarrick Lower Secondary School. After my lessons, I like to play computer game. The game I like best is ‘Angry Birds’. I often play it for half an hour before dinner. I hope that I can create a new kind of computer game in the future.

My name’s Trung. I’ve got a lot of hobbies. I like playing the guitar and I love to watch football on TV. I don’t do much sport, but I often go swimming with my friends on hot days.

PART II

Sweden’s capital city is built on 14 islands and has a 700 year-old history. The oldest part of Stockholm is the Old Town. Here you can visit the Royal Palace, one of Europe’s largest and most dynamic palaces.

There are about 3,000 people living in the Old Town today and it’s a place with cafés, restaurants, shops and museums, including the Nobel Museum.

Stockholm is also the city where Nobel Prizes, except for the Nobel Peace Prize, are awarded each year. On the 10th December, the day when Alfred Nobel died, the Nobel Prize winners receive their awards from the Swedish King – a Nobel diploma, a medal, and 10 million Swedish crowns per prize.

1.3. Ma trận đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

PARTS	No. of Ques	Mark	Task types	Re		Com		Low App		High App
				TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,5)	2	0.5	Pronunciation: Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form the others	0.5
	5	1.25	Vocabulary: MCQs: Circle the best option	1.0	0.25
	3	0.75	Grammar: MCQs: Circle the best option	0.75
READING (2.5)	5	1.25	Read the text and tick the best answer:	1.25
	5	1.25	Read the text and circle the best answer:	1.25
WRITING (2.5)	2	0.5	(Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English	0.5
	4	1.0	(Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged	1.0
	2	1.0	(Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given.	1.0
LISTENING (2.5)	5	1.25	– Listen and tick T/F	1.0	0.25
	5	1.25	– Listen and fill in the gaps	1.0	0.25
TOTAL(10.0)	48	10.0	4.0		3.0		2.0		1.0

1.4. Bản đặc tả đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

PARTS	CONTENTS	No. of Ques	Mark	Task types	Re		Com		Low App		High App
					TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
LISTENING (2.5)	-Sen 1-5:(com )Listen for specific information about sports and games	5	1.25	Listen and write T/F	1.0	0.25
	-Sen 6-10: (re and low app) – Listen for specific information about description of a city.	5	1.25	Listen and write a word you hear in each gap	1.0	0.25
LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2.5)	Pronunciation: (re) -Sen 11: sounds /əʊ/ & /aʊ/ -Sen 12: sounds /θ/, /ð/	2	0.5	Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form the others	0.5
	Vocabulary -Sen 13: (re )1 noun about sports and games -Sen 14:(re) 1 noun about television -Sen 15: ( com)1 noun about sports and games -sentence 16 (com) noun about television -Sen 17: (re) noun about television	2	1.25	MCQs: Circle the best option	1.0	0.25
	Grammar points: -Sen 18:(low app) 1 sentence about exclamations. -Sen 19:(re) 1 sentence about Wh-questions. 20. (low app)1 sentence About possessive adjective.	3	0.75	MCQs: Circle the best option	0.75
READING (2.5)	-Sen 21: (com) Choose the best answer -Sen 22: (re) Choose the best answer -Sen 23: (re) Choose the best answer -Sen 24: (re) Choose the best answer -Sen 25: (com) Choose the best answer	5	1.25	(Cloze test) Read the text about my school and fill in the blank (choose the correct answer) ( Reading comprehension) Read the email about Marble Mountain and circle the best answer:	1.25
	Sen 26: (com) Choose the best answer Sen 27: (com) Choose the best answer -Sen 28: (com) Choose the best answer -Sen 29 (com) : Choose the best answer -Sen 30 (com) : Choose the best answer	5	1.25		1.25
WRITING (2.5)	–Sen 31: (re)1 sentence about past simple tense. -Sen 32:(re) 1 sentence about conjunctions.	2	0.5	(Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English	0.5
	-Sen 33: (low app) 1 sentence about conjunction -Sen 34: (low app) 1 sentence about possessive pronouns -Sen 35: (low app) 1 sentence about imperatives. -Sen 36: (low app) -1 sentence about Wh-questions	4	1.0	(Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged	1.0
	-Sen 37: (hig app) 1 sentence about exclamations. -Sen 38: (hig app) 1 sentence about past simple tense.	2	1.0	(Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given.	1.0
Grand Total (10.0)	48	10.0	4.0		3.0		2.0		1.0

2. Đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống – Đề 1

2.1. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

PHÒNG GD&ĐT …… TRƯỜNG THCS ……

ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG GIỮA HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC: 2023 – 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không tính thời gian giao đề) Ngày khảo sát: ……

SECTION 1: LISTENING

I. Listen to the passages. Then tick Then tick (✓) T (True) or F (False) for each sentence. (1pt)

T	F
1. Hai goes cycling at the weekend.
2. Hai’s favourite sport is karate.
3. Alice doesn’t like doing sport very much.
4. Alice plays computer games every day.

SECTION 2: LANGUAGE FOCUS

II. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined . (1pt)

5. A. test B. dress C. these D. then

6. A. gather B. monthly C. father D. brother

7. A. fold B. close C. cloth D. hold

8. A. man B. woman C. relax D. badminton

III. Choose A, B, C, or D for each gap in the following sentences.(2pt)

9. My house is near ______ house, so I usually go there and play badminton with her.

A. his
B. her
C. she
D. hers

10. – “__________ watch TV too much.” – “I see.”

A. Not
B. Do
C. Don’t
D. Did

11. – “_______ films did you see last week?” – “Only one.”

A. What
B. Which
C. Who
D. How many

12. There is one bedroom in my house, but there are two in _______.

A. they
B. their
C. theirs
D. them

13. I first ______ Melbourne in 2003.

A. went
B. have been
C. have gone
D. visited

14. My brother is afraid of water, ______ he can’t swim.

A. because
B. but
C. and
D. so

15. – “ ______ is your favourite tennis player?” – “I don’t like tennis.”

A. What
B. Which
C. Who
D. Where

16. _______ eat too much salt. It’s not good for you.

A. Do
B. Don’t
C. Please
D. Can’t

SECTION 3: READING

1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (1pt)

Rebecca Stevens was the first woman to climb Mount Everest. Before she went up the highest mountain in the world, she was a journalist and lived in south London.

In 1993, Rebecca left her job and her family and travelled to Asia with some other climbers. She found that life on Everest is very difficult. “You must carry everything on your back,” she explained, “so you can only take things that you will need. You can’t wash on the mountain, and in the end I didn’t even take a toothbrush. I am usually a clean person but there is no water, only snow. Water is very heavy so you only take enough to drink!”

Rebecca became famous when she reached the top of Mount Everest on May 17, 1993. After that, she wrote a book about the trip, and people often asked her to talk about it. She got a new job too, on a science programme on television.

17. Where was Rebecca Stevens from?

A. England
B. Asia
C. Everest
D. The South

18. Before she climbed Everest, Rebecca Stevens was a _______.

A. climber
B. journalist
C. traveller
D. scientist

19. Why did Rebecca Stevens become famous?

A. She left her job and her family and travelled to Asia.
B. She found that life on Everest is very difficult.
C. She got a new job on television.
D. She was the first woman to climb Mount Everest.

20. Life on Everest is very difficult because _______.

A. it is very high
B. you can’t take things with you
C. there is no water there
D. there are no toothbrushes

Read the text and answer the questions.(1pt)

Today, badminton becomes a very popular sports activity. It spreads quickly from the city to the countryside. People need only a pair of rackets, a shuttlecock, a net and a small piece of land to play the game. Two or four players hit the shuttlecock over the net with their rackets. People can play badminton in their free time or in a competition. Now there are many badminton competitions and even a World Cup. The strongest countries in badminton are Indonesia, China and South Korea.

21. Do people enjoy playing badminton today ?

……………………………………………………………………………

22. What do people need to play badminton ?

…………………………………………………………….……………

23. When can people play badminton ?

…………………………………………………………………………..

24. What countries are the strongest in badminton ?

……………………………………………………….……………….

SECTION 4:WRITING

1. Use the conjunction at the end of the sentence to connect two simple sentences.(1pt)

25. We wanted to watch Pinocchio. We turned to the Movie channel. (so)

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

26. You can watch The Pig Race. You can watch Who’s Faster after that. (and)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………

27. I’minterestedin the history of television.I like reading books about it. (so)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

28. I love films. I don’t like watching them on television. (but)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. Write a short paragrap about 50-80 word to describe the sport you like. (1pt)

– What is the name of the sport ? – What equipment does it need?

– How many players are there? – Why do you like it?

– How often do you play it?

2.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

SECTION 1: LISTENING

I. (mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm)

1. T

2. T

3. T

4. F

SECTION 2: LANGUAGE FOCUS

II. (mỗi câu đúng 0.2 điểm)

5. C

6. B

7. C

8. B

III. (mỗi câu đúng 0.2 điểm)

9. B	10. C	11. D	12. C
13. D	14. D	15. C	16. B

SECTION 3: READING

I. (mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm)

A 18. B. 19. D 20. C

V.( mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm)

Yes ,they do.

22. They/People need only a pair of rackets, a shuttlecock, a net and a small piece of land to play the game.

People/They can play badminton in their free time or in a competition.

The strongest countries in badminton are Indonesia, China and South Korea.

SECTION 4: WRITING

VI. (mỗi câu đúng 0.25 điểm)

25. We wanted to watch Pinocchio, so we turned to the Movie channel.

26. You can watch The Pig Race, and you can watch Who’s Faster after that.

27. I’m interested in the history of television, so I like reading books about it.

28. I love films, but I don’t like watching them on television.

VII.

Marking criteria	Point
1. Content	0,4
– Providing all main ideas and details as required.
– Commmunicating intention sufficently and effectively
2. Organization and presentation	0,2
– Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion and clarity.
– The paragraph is well-structured
3. Language	0,2
– Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language.
– Good use and control of grammatical structures
4. Punctuation, spelling and handwriting	0,2
– Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes
– Legible handwriting

2.3. Ma trận đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

Skills	Themes	Recognition		Understanding		Application		Total
		Closed Ques.	Open Ques.	Closed Ques.	Open Ques.	Closed Ques.	Open Ques.
Listening	Listen and tick ( ✓ ) T (True) or F (False)	4 (0.25pts)	4 (1pt)
Language focus	Pronunciation	4 (0.25pts)	4 (1pt)
	Grammar & Vocabulary	8 (0.25)	8 (2pts)
Reading	Read the passage and choose the best answer	4 (0.25pts)	4 (1pt)
Read the passage and answer the question	4 (0.25pts)	4 (1pt)
Writing	Use the conjunction at the end of the sentence to connect two simple sentences	4 (0.25pts)	4 (1pt)
TOTAL	Write a short paragraph	(1 pt)	(1pt)
	Marks / %	2 pt	3 pt	1pt	1pt	1pt	8pts

3. Đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống – Đề 2

3.1. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.

1. ________ eat too much sweets. It’s not good for your teeth.

A. Do

B. Please

C. Don’t

D. Can’t

2. As it is very hot in summer in Viet Nam, we always________ swimming.

A. play

B. do

C. make

D. go

3. “ I’ve just got a total scholarship form my university.” – “ ………………………”

A. Really

B. Thank you

C. Congratulations

D. Well

4. Many school girls ________ yoga to keep fit.

A. play

B. went

C. do

D. go

5. ________ it is raining heavily, we will cancel the outside camping.

A. Because

B. Although

C. When

D. So

6.This is the ________ building in the town .

A. highly

B. most high

C. higher

D. highest

Give correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the following sentences.

1. Binh (not/ do) ______ his homework yet.

2. You (watch) ______ the basketball match on TV last Monday?

3. Peter never (see) ______ a panda.

4. Vinh (be) ______ a student when he won a first prize in Science.

5. My aunt and uncle (visit) ______ Da Lat last Spring.

6. I (be) ______ to Quy Nhon beach once.

Read the passage and write T (true) or F (false) before the sentences below.

Today, badminton becomes a very popular sports activity. It spreads quickly from the city to the countryside. People need only a pair of rackets, a shuttlecock, a net and a small piece of land to play the game. Two or four players hit the shuttlecock over the net with their rackets. People can play badminton in their free time or in a competition. Now there are many badminton competitions and even a World Cup. The strongest countries in badminton are Indonesia, China and South Korea.

1. Badminton is a very popular sports activity.

2. Three people can play badminton together.

3. People can only play badminton in a competition.

4. World Cup has badminton.

5. Indonesia, China and South Korea are strongest countries in badminton.

3.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

Choose the best answer to complete each sentence.

1 – C; 2 – D; 3 – C; 4 – C; 5 – A; 6 – D;

Give correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the following sentences.

1. Binh (not/ do) ___hasn’t done___ his homework yet.

2. You (watch) __Did you watch____ the basketball match on TV last Monday?

3. Peter never (see) __has never seen____ a panda.

4. Vinh (be) ___was___ a student when he won a first prize in Science.

5. My aunt and uncle (visit) __visited____ Da Lat last Spring.

6. I (be) ___has been___ to Quy Nhon beach once.

Read the passage and write T (true) or F (false) before the sentences below.

1 – True; 2 – False; 3 – False; 4 – True; 5 -True;

4. Đề thi giữa kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức với cuộc sống – Đề 3

4.1. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

Choose a word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from others.

1. A. chess B. champion C. machine D. match

2. A. near B. bear C. idea D. appear

3. A. match B. square C. badminton D. grandfather

4. A. w ea ther B. newsr ea der C. t ea ching D. rep ea t

5. A. g a me B. rel a x C. n a tional D. ch a nnel

Give correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the following sentences.

1. Van (be) ______ a teacher last two months.

2. My aunt and uncle (visit) ______ Da Lat last summer.

3. Lan often (play) ____badminton in her free time .

4. Many people with different skills work hard (produce)_______quality programmes for TV.

5. Last summer, I (go) ____ to Nam Dinh to watch a football match with my brother .

Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbers blanks.

There are ….(1)…… main kinds of sports: team sports and individual sports. Team sports are such sports as baseball, basketball ….(2)…… volleyball. Team sports require two separate teams. The teams play against each other. They complete against each other in order …(3)…..the best score. For example, in a football game, …….(4)……….. team A scores 4 points and team B scores 2 points, team A wins the game. Team sports are sometimes …….(5)…….. competitive sports.

1. A. one B. two C. three D. four

2. A. and B. because C. or D. so

3. A. to do B. to make C. to get D. to play

4. A. if B. but C. and D. or

5. A. calling B. having C. call D. called

4.2. Đáp án đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh 6

Choose a word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from others.

1 – C; 2 – B; 3 – D; 4 – A; 5 – A;

Give correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the following sentences.

1. Van (be) ____was__ a teacher last two months.

2. My aunt and uncle (visit) ___visited___ Da Lat last summer.

3. Lan often (play) __plays__badminton in her free time .

4. Many people with different skills work hard (produce)_____to produce__quality programmes for TV.

5. Last summer, I (go) __went__ to Nam Dinh to watch a football match with my brother .

Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbers blanks.

1 – B; 2 – A; 3 – C; 4 – A; 5 – D;

…..

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